Part A) The gene AR that encodes an androgen receptor (that is
required for cells and tissues to respond to androgen hormones), is located on the X
chromosome. A recessive nonsense mutation in this gene leads to complete androgen
insensitivity syndrome, which means that the body cannot use androgens at all. If a XY
individual is born and they inherit the nonsense mutation form of AR, (assume a
functional copy of SRY on their Y) with regard to sexual determination, should this
individual develop with more female or male phenotypic characteristics? Why?
Part B) In a pedigree for this trait, what would be unusual about the pedigree and the affected
individuals given that this trait is X-linked and recessive? (As a note, pedigrees display
individuals as their phenotypic biological sex rather than by chromosome makeup)
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